campus Loactions for CDI College Alberta

Campus Locations for CDI College
Saskatchewan
Ontario
Quebec
Nova Scotia
Alberta
British Columbia
Manitoba
Business Programs for CDI College
Business Administration
Business Administration - Management
Business Administrative Assistant
Business Computer Specialist

CDI College offers bachelor, and master’s degrees in arts & sciences, business Admissions 2010

CDI College offers certificates and associate, bachelor, and master’s degrees in arts & sciences, business, criminal justice, education, information systems & technology, nursing & health care and paralegal studies. Here is your chance to earn a degree or certificate by CDI College valued by companies worldwide. For entry level jobs an Associate’s or Bachelor’s degree in business will push your chances of getting job. Working professionals in fields like finance, marketing or human resources, can earn a specialized Master’s in business or MBA degree which give them a value in their specialized job.

For over 30 years, CDI has been providing students just like you with high quality Diploma educations in Business, Technology and Health Care. Our Instructors facilitate, mentor and coach students in a supportive learning environment. Morning and afternoon sessions make it possible for you to balance your education with your other responsibilities in life.

Campus Locations for University of Phoenix

Business Programs for University of Phoenix
BS in Business/Accounting
BS in Business/Administration
BS in Business/Communication
BS in Business/Finance
BS in Business/Global Business Management
BS in Business/Hospitality Management
BS in Business/Information Systems
BS in Business/Integrated Supply Chain and Operations Mgmt
BS in Business/Management
BS in Business/Marketing
BS in Business/Organizational Innovation
BS in Business/Public Administration
BS in Business/Retail Management
BS in Business/e-Business

University of Phoenix offers certificates and associate, bachelor, and master’s degrees in arts & sciences, business, criminal justice, education, information systems & technology

University of Phoenix offers certificates and associate, bachelor, and master’s degrees in arts & sciences, business, criminal justice, education, information systems & technology, nursing & health care and paralegal studies. Here is your chance to earn a degree or certificate by University of Phoenix valued by companies worldwide. For entry level jobs an Associate’s or Bachelor’s degree in business will push your chances of getting job. Working professionals in fields like finance, marketing or human resources, can earn a specialized Master’s in business or MBA degree which give them a value in their specialized job.

Founded in 1976, University of Phoenix is dedicated to meeting the needs of working students. Attend classes in the day or evening at one of our convenient campus locations or study 100% online.

Campus Locations for Strayer College

Alabama
Delaware
District of Columbia
Florida
Georgia
Kentucky
Maryland
North Carolina
Pennsylvania
South Carolina
Tennessee
Virginia
Business Programs for Strayer College
Bachelor of Business Administration

Important Dates of All India Pre Medical Test AIPMT 2010

In the Preliminary Examination you have to attend a single paper of 200 objective type questions from Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
The duration of paper is of 3 hours.
After qualifying in the Preliminary Examination, you appear for the AIPMT 2010 Final Exam.
The Final Examination would consist of two papers each of 2 hours duration. Paper-1 - Physics and Chemistry. Paper-2 - Biology (Botany and Zoology).
You can opt for either English or Hindi question paper.

important dates will be updated soon

Eligibility for All India Pre Medical Test AIPMT 2010

Eligibility Criteria: 
( i) He/She has completed age of 17 years at the time of admission or will complete the age on or before 31st December of the year of his/her admission to the 1st year M.B.B.S./DENTAL Course and is an INDIAN NATIONAL.

(ii) The upper age limit for All India Pre-Medical /Pre-Dental Entrance Examination is 25 years as on 31st December of the year of the entrance examination. Further provided that this upper age limit shall be relaxed by a period of 5 (five) years for the candidates of Scheduled Castes/Schedule Tribes/Other Backward Classes.

(iii) The number of attempts which a candidate can avail at All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance Examination shall be limited to 3 (three) uniformly for all the candidates.

The candidate must have passed in the subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English individually and must have obtained a minimum of 50% marks taken together in Physics, Chemistry and Biology at the qualifying examination. In respect of candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes or Other Backward Classes the marks obtained in Physics, Chemistry and Biology taken together in qualifying examination be 40% instead of 50% for General Candidates. Those who are taking plus two examination in 2010 can also appear for the entrance test provisionally subject to their fulfilling the conditions later

All India Pre Medical Test (AIPMT) 2010

Overviews
Applications are invited in the prescribed form for All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Examination (AIPMT) 2010 to be conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education, Delhi as per the following schedule for admission to 15% of the total seats for Medical/Dental Courses in all Medical/Dental colleges run by the Union of India, State Governments, Municipal or other local authorities in India except in the States of Andhra Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir

Railway Recruitment Board written entrance exam on 2010 Allahabad

Question:
I want to get Railway Recruitment Board written entrance exam on 2010.
The suggestion about Railway Recruitment Board Vacancy 2010, I need to get Railway Recruitment Board Vacancy 2010 and how much more experience. Kindly send me the complete details along with educational qualification

Railway Recruitment Board Examination 2010

Railway Recruitment Board, entrance exam assigned the task of recruitment of Group “C” staff under various categories for all the Railway Organization falling under its jurisdiction. It is working under the Ministry of Railways, Visit the Official website for More Details about the Eligibility for Railway Recruitment Board,

APTRANSCO Application for the post of Assistant Engineer ( ELECTRICAL / TELECOM / CIVIL )

Transmission Corporation of Andhra Pradesh Limited

Recruitment for the Post of Assistant Engineer (Electrical/ Telecom/ Civil)

Eligibility :-

Age Limit : Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.07.09.

Scale of Pay: Rs.13905-575-15055-670-18405-770-21485.

Educational Qualification :

Assistant Engineers/Electrical: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E, Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent qualification in the similar discipline from any recognized University in India.

Assistant Engineers/Telecom: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E, in Telecommunications/Electronics/ Electronics and Communication or equivalent qualification in the similar discipline from any recognized University in India.

Assistant Engineers/Civil: Must possess BE/B.Tech/ A.M.I.E, Civil Engineering or equivalent qualification in the similar discipline from any recognized University in India.

The selection of candidates for appointment will be made 100% on Written examination.

Date of examination:

(a) The written examination for recruitment of Assistant Engineer/ Elec., will be held on 07.02.2010 at 10 AM to 12 Noon.

(b) The written examination for recruitment of Assistant Engineer/Telecom and Civil will be held on 07.02.2010 at 2 PM to 4 PM.

Examination Centers: The written examination for recruitment of Assistant Engineer/ Elec., /Telecom/Civil will be held at different centers located only in Hyderabad & Secunderabad.

Application Fee :

Each applicant must pay Rs. 150/- (Rupees One hundred and Fifty Only) towards Application Processing Fee.

Applicants under General category must also pay RS.350/- (Three Hundred and Fifty ONLY) towards Examination Fee. (Applicants belonging to SC/ST/BC Communities and PH need not pay this fee).

The Applicant should pay the prescribed Fee in any one of the A.P. Online centers and obtain Fee paid receipt with Journal Number( 12 digit) in the first instance. Applicants can also pay the fee through AP Online portal.

How To Apply : Apply online at APTRANSCO website only upto 25/01/2009.

Starting date for Payment of Fee and Application submission is 05.01.2010.

Last date for payment of Fee at AP Online is 23.01.2010

Last date for submission of Application is 25.01.2010 up to 7 P.M

Click Here For More Details & Apply Online

Jntu Revised TimeTable For Btech 2009-2010 Btech and Bpharmacy

The University Examinations scheduled to be conducted on 23-01-2010 (Saturday) are postponed and will be conducted as per the following time-table.

S.No.    Name of Exam     Scheduled Date of Exam   Rescheduled Date of exam
01           B.Tech.               23-01-10 AN                     11-02-10 AN
02           B.Pharmacy       23-01-10 AN                     30-01-10 AN
03           MCA IV SEM       23-01-10 FN                     27-01-10 FN

Click on the below link to download the official notification.

http://www.ziddu.com/download/8123150/son23-01-2010PostponementRegarding.doc.html

jntu btech revised timetable for 2010

JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD
KUKATPALLY - HYDERABAD – 500 085
E X A M I N A T I O N   B R A N C H
IV YEAR B.TECH - I SEMESTER– R05 REGULATION (R05) – REGULAR  EXAMINATIONS, JANUARY, 2010
R E V I S E D T  I  M  E    T  A  B  L  E

Revised B.Tech Time Table

jntu hyderabad revised timetable for btech 2010 exams | Jntu btech timetable revised schedule

Revised B.Tech Timetable for I,II,III & IV Year I & II Semesters Regular/Supplementary Examinations

Revised B.Tech Time Table

Revised B.Pharmacy Timetable for I,II,III & IV Year I & II Semesters Regular/Supplementary Examinations

Revised B.Pharmacy Time Table

Solar Eclipse 2010 Live Streaming | 15 Jan 2010 Solar Eclipse Live

First full Solar Eclipse 2010 & longest of Millennium

 

 

The first solar eclipse will take place over Dhanushkodi town in Tamil Nadu state of India. From there people will be able to see a full Solar eclipse and what is called 'ring of fire' where the suns rays surrounds the sun making it appear as if the moon is on fire.
This will also be the longest solar eclipse of this millennium that is from 2001 to 3000. Lasting about ten minuets and thirty seconds at its fullest but the whole process of the eclipse will start at 11 am and end around 3:15 pm. The whole 'effect' of the eclipse will be visible for 300 km wide track that will span over half the Earth.
There are many stages and aspects of a solar eclipse the best part has to be the ring of fire but there are also the partial eclipse that would be visible for other countries. The path of the moon starts in Africa at 10:44 am then passes through Chad, Central African Republic, Congo, Uganda, Kenya and Somalia it will then cross over the Indian Ocean where it's central path will continue in Asia through the extreme Southern part of India, Bangladesh, Myanmar ending in China.
What also makes this a special solar eclipse is the fact that this is the first time since 1965 November 22 India will see the Ring of Fire and will not be seen again until 2020 June 21.
All of this will take place on the 15 January 2010 and remember you should not look directly at the sun during that time especially those in the Tamil Nadu area. There would be universities and schools setting up 'viewing' apparatus on the roofs for those who wants a closer look.

VITEEE 2009 Previous Papers 2009 | VITEEE 2009 MOdel Papers or VITEEE previous papers

SOLUTION & ANSWER FOR VITEEE

1.     In nature, the electric charge of any system is always–
 
        Ans:    Quantisation of charge
                    Choice (D)
 
2.     The energy stored in the capacitor as shown in   Fig. (a) is 4.5 ´ 10- 6 J. If the battery is replaced     by –
 
        Ans:   
                    = 4.5 ´ 10- 6 J
                   
                   Choice (B)
 
3.     Equal amounts of a metal are converted into        cylindrical wires of different lengths (L) and cross-sectional –
 
        Ans:    R =
                   Choice (C)
 
4.     If the force exerted by an electric dipole on a         charge q at a distance of 1 m is F, the force–
 
        Ans:   
                   
                    Choice (D)
 
5.     A solid sphere of radius R 1 and volume charge   density r = is enclosed by a hollow sphere of        radius R2 with negative surface charge density–
 
        Ans:    Q in =
                    =
                    = 4p R22s
                    Choice (C)
 
6.     A solid spherical conductor of radius R has a      spherical cavity of radius a9a < R) at its centre. A        charge +Q is kept at the center.–
 

Q
-Q
+Q
        Ans:
       
 
 
                Choice (B)
7.     A cylindrical capacitor has charge Q and length L. If both –
 
        Ans:    U 1 =
                    U 2 =
        Choice (B)
 
8.     Three resistances of 4 W each are connected as shown in figure. If the point D divides the resistance –
 

2
4
2
4
        Ans:   
 
 
 
 
 
 
        Choice (C)
 
9.     The resistance of a metal increases with increasing –
 
        Ans:    Vibration of lattice ions increases with                                  
                    temperature
        Choice (B)
 
10.  In the absence of applied potential, the electric current flowing through-
 
        Ans:    Thermal velocity of electrons is in random                           
                    directions
        Choice (C)
 
11.  A meter bridge is used to determine the resistance of an unknown wire by measuring the balance point length l. If the wire is replaced by –
 
        Ans:   
 
12.  Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding –
 
        Ans:    Supercurrent always flows on the surface                            
                    of the superconductor
        Choice (B)
 
13.  A sample of HCl gas is placed in an electric field of 3 ´ 104 NC- 1. The dipole moment of each HCl molecule is –
 
        Ans:    t = pE
        Choice (C)
 
 
 
 
14.  When a metallic plate swings between the  –
 
        Ans:    Lenz’s law
        Choice (C)
 
15.  When an electrical appliance is switched on, it responds almost-
 
        Ans:    Electromagnetic waves travel with the                                   
                    speed of light
                    Choice (B)
 
16.  Two identical incandescent light bulbs are connected as shown in the figure. When the circuit is an AC voltage source–
 
        Ans:    At resonance XL = XC
                    Choice (B)
 
17.  A transformer rated at 10 kW is used to connect a 5 kV transmission line to a 240 V circuit. The ratio –
 
        Ans:    n =
                    Choice (B)
 
18.  Three solenoid coils of same dimension, same number of turns and same number of layers of winding are taken. Coil 1 with inductance L1 was wound using a Mn wire of resistance 11 W / m; –
 
        Ans:    Alternate winding in opposite direction                                  
                    total flux = 0
                    Choice (C)
 
19.  Light travels with a speed of 2 ´ 108 m/s in crown glass of refractive index 1.5. What is the speed of light –
 
        Ans:    n 1v1 = n2v2
                    Choice (B)
 
20.  A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A screen is placed at a large distance from the slit.–
 
        Ans:    sinq =
                    Choice (C)
 
21.  Two beams of light will not give rise to an –
 
        Ans:    Since the polarization vectors are                                           
                    perpendicular their vector sum ¹ 0
                    Choice (C)
 
22.  A slit of width `a’ is illuminated with a monochromatic light of wavelength l from a distant source and the diffraction pattern –
 
        Ans:    sinq =
                    Choice (B)
 
23.  A thin film of soap solution (n = 1.4) lies on the top of a glass plate (n = 1.5). When visible light is incident almost normal to the plate, two adjacent reflection –
 
        Ans:    n 1l 1 = n2l 2
                    2n 1 = 3n2
                    Þ n1 = 3
                    d = = 450
                    Choice (B)
 
24.  If the speed of a wave doubles as it passes from shallow water into deeper water, –
 
        Ans:    c = fl
                    Choice (C)
 
25.  A light whose frequency is equal to 6 ´ 1014 Hz is incident on a metal whose work function is
2 eV –
 
        Ans:    hu = f + K.E
                    Choice (C)
 
26.  An electron microscope is used to probe the atomic arrangements to a resolution of . What should be the electric potential –
 
        Ans:   
                    Choice (D)
 
27.  Which phenomenon best supports the theory that matter –
 
        Ans:    Electrons behave also as waves of l =
                    Choice (B)
 
28.  The radioactivity of a certain material drops to of the initial value in 2 hours. The half –
 
        Ans:    Activity changes from A0 to A0/16 implies 4                             half-lives.
                    Choice (C)
 
29.  An observer `A’ sees an asteroid with a radioactive element moving by at a speed = 0.3 c and measures the radioactivity decay time to be TA. Another observer `B’ –
 
        Ans:    Moving clocks are slower TB < TA
                    Choice (A)
 
30.  234U has 92 protons and 234 nucleons total in its nucleus. It decays by emitting an alpha –
 
        Ans:    234U92 à 230Th90 + a
                    Choice (C)
 
31.  Ka and Kb x-rays are emitted when there is a transition of electron –
 
        Ans:    K series end in n = 1
                    Choice (A)
 
32.  A certain radioactive material ZXA starts emitting a and b particles successively such that the end product –
 
        Ans:    ZXA à Z- 3YA- 8 + 2a + 1b
                    Choice (B)
 
33.  In the circuit shown above, an input of 1 V is fed into the inverting input of an ideal Op-amp A. The output signal –
 
        Ans:    = - 10 (negative feedback)
                    Choice (B)
 
34.  When a solid with a band gap has a donor level just below its empty energy band, -
 
        Ans:    Knowledge based
                    Choice (D)
 
35.  A p – n junction has acceptor impurity concentration of 1017 cm- 3 in the P side and donor impurity concentration of 1016 cm- 3 in the N side. What is the contact potential at the –
 
        Ans:    V contact =
                    Choice (A)
 
36.  A zener diode has a contact potential of 1 V in the absence of biasing. It undergoes zener breakdown for an electric field of 106 V/m at the depletion region of p-n junction. If the width –
 
        Ans:    V = Ed
                    Choice (B)
 
 
37.  In Colpitt oscillator the feedback network –
 
        Ans:    a-c equivalent circuit.
                    Choice (B)
 
38.  The reverse saturation of p-n diode
 
        Ans:    Knowledge based
                    Choice (D)
 
39.  A radio station has two channels. One is AM at 1020 kHz and the other FM at 89.5 MHz. –
 
        Ans:    Knowledge based
                    Choice (A)
 
40.  The communication using optical fibers is –
 
        Ans:    Optic fibre uses T.I.R.
                    Choice (A)

PART – II [CHEMISTRY]
 
41.  The oxidation number of oxygen ¾
 
        Ans:   KO 3: + 1 + 3x = 0,              x =
                   Na 2O2: + 2 + 2x = 0,          x = - 1
                   Choice (D)
 
42.  Reaction of I Cl3 and PhMgBr ¾
 
        Ans:   Triphenyl phosphene
                   3C 6H5MgBr + PCl3 ® (C6H5)3P + 3MgClBr
                   Choice (C)
 
43.  ……. not a characteristic of transition elements?
 
        Ans:   Choice (D)
 
44.  Cl - P - Cl bond ¾
 
        Ans:   Arial bonds are 90° and Equatorial bonds are 120°.
                   Choice (A)
 
45.  --- magnetic moment ¾
        Ans:   No unpaired electron.
                   Choice (A)
 
46.  The number of Formula units of calcium fluoride CaF2 ¾
 
        Ans:   Number of moles =
                   Number of formula units =  ´ 6.023
                                                                                  ´ 1023
                                                                = 1.129 ´ 1024
                   Choice (A)
 
47.  The IUPAC name of the given ¾
 
        Ans:   Choice (C)
 
48.  When SCN‑ is added to an aqueous ¾
 
        Ans:   Fe 3+ + SCN‑ + H2O ® [Fe(H2O)5SCN]2+
                   Choice(B)
 
 
49.  Hair dyes contain
 
        Ans:   Choice (C)
 
50.  Schottky defects occurs ¾
 
        Ans:   Schottky defect occurs when the ions have almost the same size
                   Choice (B)
 
51.  The number of unpaired electron ¾
 
        Ans:   [Co(NH 3)6]3+ - Inner orbital complex
                                          - No unpaired electron
                   [CoF 6]3‑         - Outer orbital complex
                                          - 4 unpaired electrons
                   Choice (D)
 
52.  The standard free energy change of a reaction ¾
 
        Ans:   - D G° = 2.303 RT log Kp
                    log Kp
                   0.02016 ´ 103 = log Kp
                                             = log K p = 20.16
                   Choice (A)
 
53.  If an endothermic reaction occurs spontaneously at ¾
 
        Ans:   For an endothermic reaction D H is positive, the reaction occurs spontaneously when D S > 0
                   Choice (C)
 
54.  If a plot of log10 C versus t fives a straight line ¾
 
        Ans:   t =
                   t ´  = logC0 - logC
                   logC = logC0 - t ´
                   logC is t in a stline with slope
                   Choice (B)
 
55.  A spontaneous process is one in which ¾
 
        Ans:   For a spontaneous process D G is negative.
                   Choice (B)
 
 
56.  The half life period of a first order reaction ¾
 
        Ans:   t ½ = 100 sec.
                   For a first order reaction t ½ =
                   K =  =  = 6.93 ´ 10‑3 sec‑1
                   Choice (B)
 
57.  The molar conductivities of KCl, NaCl and KNO3 are ¾
 
        Ans:   =
                   = 128 + 111 - 152 = 87 S cm2 mol‑1
                   Choice (B)
 
58.  The electrochemical cell stops working ¾
 
        Ans:   When both the electrode potentials become equal cell reactions stops.
                   Choice (B)
 
59.  The amount of electricity required to produce ¾
 
        Ans:   1 mole of copper is 2 equivalents
                   Current required = 2 Faraday
                   Choice (C)
 
60.  Dipping iron article into a strongly alkaline ¾
 
        Ans:   Choice (C)
 
61.  Hydroboration oxidation of 4-methyl-octene ¾
 
        Ans:   Hydroboration – oxidation of alkenes give alcohols containing the same number of carbon atoms. Net reaction involves addition of H2O against Markownikoff’s rule.
                   Choice (A)
 
62.  When ethyl alcohol is heated
 
        Ans:   Ethanol undergoes dehydration when heated with conc.H2SO4 to form ethylene.
                   Choice (D)
 
63.  Anisole is the product obtained from ¾
 
        Ans:   Anisole is phenyl methyl ether.
                   Choice (B)
 
 
 
64.  Ethylene glycol gives oxalic acid ¾
 
        Ans:   Choice (C)
 
65.  Diamond is hard ¾
 
        Ans:   Choice (A)
 
66.  A Wittig reaction with an aldehyde ¾
 
        Ans:   Carbonyl compounds react with phosphorous yields to form alkenes. This is known as Witting reaction.
                   Choice (C)
 
67.  Cannizzaro reaction is ¾
 
        Ans:   HCHO does not contain a -hydrogen atom. So it undergoes Cannizzaro reaction.
                   Choice (A)
 
68.  ¾
 
        Ans:   C 6H6 + CO  C6H5 - CHO
        This is known as Gattermann-Koch aldehyde synthesis.
                   Choice (C)
 
69.  Maleic acid and Fumaric acids ¾
 
        Ans:   Maleic acid is the cis-isomer and fumaric acid is the trans-isomer.
                   Choice (B)
 
70.  The gas evolved on heating ¾
 
        Ans:   HCOONa + NaOH
                                                        H 2 + Na2CO3.
                   Choice (C)
 
 
 
 
71.  CH 3CH3 + HNO3 ¾
 
        Ans:   Choice (B)
 
72.  When acetamide is hydrolysed by ¾
 
        Ans:   Choice (A)
 
73.  Which will not go for diazotization?
 
        Ans:   Choice (B)
 
74.  Secondary nitroalkanes can be ¾
 
        Ans:  
                   Choice(A)
 
75.  ………. Stephen reduction to ¾
 
        Ans:   Alkyl cyanides on reduction with SnCl2 and HCl will give aldehyde.
                   Choice (A)
 
76.  The continuous phase contains ¾
 
        Ans:   Choice (C)
 
77.  The number of hydrogen atoms present in ¾
 
        Ans:   = 9.91 ´ 1023
                   Choice (B)
 
78.  Milk changes after digestion ¾
 
        Ans:   Choice (C)
 
79.  ……… essential amino acids?
 
        Ans:   Choice (B)
 
80.  ….. is a Ketohexose?
 
        Ans:   Choice (C)

PART – III [MATHEMATICS]

81.  The system of equations -
 
        Ans:  
                   = 1(1 - 3) - 2(1 - 2) = - 2 + 2 = 0
                   Choice (B)
 
82.  , then -
 
        Ans:   = I
                   A 4 = I
A3 = I A- 1
A2 = I A- 2

     =
A- 1 =
     =
A- 2 =  =

ab =
Þ a2b2 = 1
Þ ab = 1
Choice (D)
 
83.  If D = diag (d1, d2, …….., dn) where -
       
        Ans:   Choice (D)
 
84.  If x, y, z are different from zero and D = -
       
        Ans:   = 0
                    = 0
                  
                =
           Choice (D)
 
85.  Probability of getting positive integral roots of the equation, -
 
        Ans:   x = ±
                   n = 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36
                   Probability =
                   Choice (C)
 
86.  The number of real roots of equation -
 
Ans:   = 22 - x4
           x 4 + 20 = (22 - x4)2
                = 484 + x 8 - 44x4
           x 8 - 45x4 + 464 = 0
           x 4 =
                = =
                = 29, 16
           x 4 = 29 is not admissible
           Þ x4 = 16
Choice (B)
 
87.  Let a , b be the roots of the equation -
 
        Ans:   a 2- aa + b = 0
                   A n+1 - aAn + bAn- 1
                             = a n+1 + b n+1- a(a n + b n) + b(a n- 1 + b n- 1)
                   = a n- 1(a 2- aa + b) + b n- 1(b 2- ab + b)
                   = 0
                   Choice (C)
88.  If the sides of a right – angle triangle -
       

c
A
C
B
a
b
        Ans:   b, c, a ® AP
       
        a =
        sin B =
        Choice (A)
 
89.  The plane through the point -
       
        Ans:   x + 3y - z = 0
y + 2z = 0
Let the plane be
A(x + 1) + B(y + 1) + C(z + 1) = 0
Plane passes through the origin
A + B + C = 0
Choice (A)
 
90.  are one of the sides -


A
B
C
D


       
        Ans:       
 
 
 
 
 
 
                       
                                    =
                   Area =
                            =
                   Choice (D)
 
91.  If be three unit vectors such that -
 
        Ans :       =
                        =
                        =
                        cos q 2     =         Þ q 2 =
                   cos q 1 = 0           Þ q 1 =
                   Choice (C)
 
 
92.  The equation  -
 
        Ans:   Equation is
                   x 2 + y2 + z2 - 2xc1 - 2yc2 - 2zc3 + h = 0
                   Choice (D)
 
93.  The simplified expression of -
 

x
a
1

        Ans:
 
 
 
 
 
 
                   Let tan- 1 x be a Þ tan a = x
                   Then from the figure sin a =
                   Þ sin (tan- 1 x)  
                   = sin
                   Choice (B)
 
94.  If -
 
        Ans:  
Þ z lies on the line perpendicular to the real axis and divides the line segment between 1 and 25 in the ratio 1 : 5 Þ   z = (5, 0) Þ |z| = 5
                     Choice (C)
 
95.  Argument of the complex number -
 
Ans:  
                            
                                     = - (1 + i)
                   \ Arg
                   Choice (C)
 
96.  In a triangle ABC, the sides b and c are -
 
        Ans:   x 2 - 61x + 820 = 0
                   x 2 - 41x - 20x + 820 = 0
                   Þ x1,2 = 41, 20
                   A = tan- 1
                             Þ cosA =
                   \ By Cosine formula,
                   a 2 = b2 + c2 - 2bc cos A
                   a 2 = 412 + 202 - 2(41)(20)
                   = 2081 - 984 = 1097
                   Choice (C)
 
97.  The shortest distance between the straight lines through -
 
        Ans:           
                               
                   \ Shortest distance =
                   =
                   =
                   Choice (D)
 
98.  The center and radius of the sphere -
 
        Ans:   Centre is at
                   Choice (C)
 
99.  Let A and B are two fixed points in a plane then locus of another -
       
        Ans:   Ellipse
                   Choice (B)
 
100.        The directrix of the parabola -
 
        Ans:   y 2 = - 4x - 3
                        = - 4
                   Equation of the directrix is
                   x =
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
                   Choice (D)
 
 
101.        If g(x) is a polynomial satisfying g(x) -
 
        Ans:   g(x) . g(y) = g(x) + g(y) + g(xy) - 2 ¾ (1)
                   g(2) . g(y) = g(x) + g(y) + g(xy) - 2
5.g(y) = 5 + g(y) + g(xy) - 2
Þ 4g(y) = 3 + g(xy)
\ g(0) = 1
g(x) is given in a polynomial, and by the relation given g(x) cannot be linear.
Let g(x) = x2 + k
Since g(0) = 1 Þ g(x) = x2 + 1
Verifying (1) Þ
(x2 + 1) (y2 + 1)
             = x 2 + 1 + y2 + 1 + x2y2 + 1 - 2
(1) is satisfied by g(x) = x2 + 1
g(x) = g(3) (Q g(x) in a polynomial)
     = 10
                   Choice (B)
 
102.        The value of f(0) so that -
 
        Ans:  
                        =
                        = 2 0n2 - 1 = l n2 - 1
                        = f(0)
                   Choice (D)
 
103.           Let [   ]   denote the greatest integer -
 
        Ans :
 
                   f(x) is continuous at x = 0
                   Choice (B)
 
104.           A spherical balloon is expanding -
 
        Ans : Let r be the radius and V be the volume
                   \ = 2            r = 5
                   \ V = p r3
                  
                   = 4p (5)2 ´ (2)
                   = 200 p
                   Choice (C)
 
105.           The length of the parabola -
 

x
L’
0
y
L
Ans :
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
                   Length =
                         =
                         =
                         =
                          =
                         =
                        =
        =
                   = 2
                   -
        =
                   =
                   =
                    = 
                   =
                   Choice (A)
106.           If I = -
        Ans :  I =
                   Put 1 + x3 = t Þ x2 dx =
                   \ I =
                   =
                   =
                   =
                   Choice (D)
 
107.           Area enclosed by the curve -
 
        Ans :
                   Þ  = 1
                   \ Area of ellipse = p ab
                   = p ´
                   = 4
                   Choice (D)
 
108.The value of -
 
        Ans :
                   x = a sin2 q
                   dx = 2a sin q cos q dq
                   x = 0 ® q = 0
                   x = a ® q =
                  
                       =
                   = 2a ´
                   Choice (C)
 
109.           Let y be the number of people -
 
        Ans : 
                  
                   l n y = - kt + c
                   y = ce- kt,  c > 0
                                    k ³ 0
                                Choice (B)
 
110.        The differential equation of -
 
         Ans:  x cos q + y sin q = a ¾ (1)
                differentiating cos q + y’ sin q = 0 ¾ (2)
                Eliminating sin q and cos q from (1) and (2)
                cos q =
                sin q =
                sin 2 q + cos2 q = 1
                Þ
                Þ a2y’ + a2 = (xy’ - g)2
                Þ
                Choice (B)
 
111.           The differential equation
        admits -
 
        Ans:  
                   , |y| > 0 , 3 > 0
     Three positive quantities cannot add to give zero.
   \ No solution.
                   Choice (B)
 
112.           Solution of the differential equation xdy -
 
        Ans : ¾ (1)
                   which is homogeneous put y = vx
                   \
                   \ (1) Þ
                   \ x
                   \
                   Integrating
                  
                   log
                   log
                  
                   \ y +
                   Choice (B)
 
113.           Let P, Q, R and S be statements and suppose-
 
        Ans:   p ® G ® R R ® p and ~ S ® R
                   Þ (C) and (D) are not true also ~ S ® R .
                   \ (A) is not true
                   Choice (B)
 
114. In how many number of ways -
 
        Ans  :   Required number of ways =
                                     = 2100
                     Choice (D)
 
115.        If R be a relation defined -
 
        Ans :       Relation is symmetric and transitive
                        Choice (D)
 
116.        Let S be a finite set containing n elements.
Then -
 
        Ans:        For commutative binary operations, there are  pairs available. For each of there pairs the result of the Binary operation should be among the n elements of S.


elements
n
commutative ordered
 pairs
S  ´ S ® S
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
                \ Total number of required operations
                        =
                        =
                Choice (B)
 
117.           A manufacturer of cotter pins knows that-
 
Ans:   Probability of a cotter pin to be defective
 =
      Average number of defective cotter pins in a box of 100 is = 100 ´
                                   = 5
      We use Poisson distribution with parameter m = 5
      Choice (B)
       
118.           The probability that a certain kind -
 
        Ans : p = , q = , n = 4
                   P(X = x) =
                   \ p(X = 2) =
                         =
                   Choice (D)
  
119.           Mean and standard deviation -
 
        Ans : For best performance &  is less
                   Which true for  = 75, s = 5
                   Choice (B)
 
120.           A random variable X follows -
 
        Ans : For Binomial distribution
   0 < variance < mean
                   0 < b < a
                   Choice (B)

PART – IV [BIOLOGY]

121.  Photosynthetic protozoan –
 
          Ans :     Euglena is  a photosynthetic protozoan.
                        Choice   (D)
 
122.  Compound eyes –
 
          Ans :     Arthropods possess compound eyes.
                        Choice   (D) 
 
123.  Golden age –
 
          Ans :     Reptiles were evolved and flourished in Mesozoic era.
                        Choice   (D)
 
124.  Match the following –
 
          Ans :     Genera plantarum – Bentham and Hooker
                        Species plantarum – Linnaeus
Historia Generalis plantarum – John ray
                        Scala Naturae – Aristotle
                        Choice   (D)
 
125.  Wings of mosquito, bat and bird –
 
          Ans :     Wings in mosquito, bat and bird show convergent evolution.
                        Choice   (A)
 
126.  Not important for evolution –
 
          Ans :     Somatic variation never influence evolution.
                        Choice   (D)
 
127.  Pre-zygotic isolating –
 
          Ans:      Hybrid sterility is not a prezygotic isolation.
                        Choice   (D)
 
 
128.  Evolutionary process giving rise to new species –
 
          Ans :     Adaptive radiation means the evolutionary process giving rise to new species adapted to new habitats.
                        Choice   (A)
 
129.  The principle that gives –
 
          Ans :     Hardy-Weinberg’ principle explains evolutionary process.
                        Choice   (B)
 
130.  Polymorphic cell organelle –
 
          Ans :     Lysosome shows primary, secondary and residual forms, hence polymorphic.
                        Choice   (B)
 
131.  Primary oocyte on meiosis –
 
          Ans :     Each primary oocyte on meiosis produces one ovum.
                        Choice   (A)
 
132.  Network of protein cables –
 
          Ans :     Spindle fibres consist protein cables.
                Choice   (A)
 
133.  Micelle microfibril –
 
          Ans :     Micelle consist 100 cellulose molecules and microfibril shows 20 micelles.
                        Choice   (D)
 
134.  In human height –
 
          Ans :     Human height is determined by many genes, hence it is polygenic.
                        Choice   (C)
 
 
 
135.  Cell containing multiples of 2n genomes –
 
          Ans :     Multiples of 2n genomes result endopolyploidy.
                        Choice   (D)
 
136.  Substitutes one purine base with another purine –
 
          Ans :     Transition is a kind of mutation which shows the replacement of a purine by another purine.
                        Choice   (C)
 
137.  Chargaff’s rule –
 
          Ans :     The sum of purines is equal to the  sum pyramidines ie., (A)+(G) = (T)+(C).
                        Choice   (C)
 
138.  Lysogenic cycle –
 
          Ans :     Temperate phages show lysogenic cyclic.
                        Choice   (B)  
 
139.  Rennet –
 
          Ans :     Rennet is used in cheese making.
                        Choice   (C)
 
140.  Abundant immunoglobulin –
 
          Ans :     I gG is the most abundant immunoglobulin.
                        Choice   (A)
 
141.  Antiviral proteins –
 
          Ans :     Viral attack results the release of interferons.
                        Choice   (B)
142.  Syngenesious –
 
          Ans ;     Stamens of asteraceae are syngenasious, which shows anther lobes fusion and free filaments. 
                        Choice   (A)
 
143.  Types of gametes are –
 
          Ans ;     Two types of gametes result from TTRr.
                        Choice   (B)
 
144.  Cross between a pure tall pea –
 
          Ans :     In F2, the number of short plants formed are of 4.       
                        Choice   (C)
 
145.  Shaft of cilia contains –
 
          Ans :     Axoneme is the supporting structure of cilia shaft.
                        Choice   (C)
 
 
146.  Disease caused by –
 
          Ans :     Mercury poisoning causes minamata diseases.
                        Choice   (B)
 
147.  Starting point of –
 
          Ans ;     Ribulose biphosphate is CO2 acceptor, hence is the starting point of Calvin cycle.
                        Choice   (B)
 
148.  Valve between the left atrium –
 
          Ans :     Valve between the left atrium and the ventricle is the mitral valve.
                        Choice   (B)
 
149.  Collecting duct of the nephron –
 
          Ans :     Collecting duct of nephron mainly recover water.
                        Choice   (C)
 
150.  Multiple sclerosis –
 
          Ans :     Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease.
                        Choice   (B)
 
151.  Urinary bladder can hold –
 
          Ans :     Urinary bladder can holds 500ml of urine, but urination desire comes when the urine is 150ml.
                        Choice   (A)
152.  Chemical knives –
 
          Ans ;     Chemical knife, Ligase is an endonuclease enzyme.
                        Choice   (A)
 
153.  Nucleotide arrangement –
 
          Ans :     X-ray Crystallography revealed the chemical constitution and arrangement of nucleotide in DNA.
                        Choice   (A)
 
154.  Common indicator organism –
 
          Ans :     Escherichia coli grows abundantly in polluted H2O.
                        Choice   (D)
 
155.  Concentration of ozone –
 
          Ans :     CFCs accumulation over north and south poles result less concentration of O3.
                        Choice   (A)
 
156.  Reservoir of the nutrient exist –
 
          Ans :     Phosphorus minerals exist as sedimentary.
                        Choice   (B)
157.  Important fiber yielding –
 
          Ans :     Jute fibre is obtained from Corchorus olitorius.
                        Choice   (D)
 
158.  Karyopsis –
 
          Ans :     Karyopsis is an one seeded dry indehiscent simple fruit.
                        Choice   (A)
 
159.  Viruses enter –
 
          Ans :     Wounds in the plant body facilitate the entry of viruses.
                        Choice   (B)
 
160.  Honey –
 
          Ans :     Honey is acidic because of the presence of large number of amino acids. Average pH of honey is
                        Choice   (A)

AP SSC 2010 Timetable |2010 SSC timetable|Timetable AP SSC 2010|AP SSC 2010 Exams Schedule

The Andhra Pradesh 2010 SSC TimeTable(Schedule of Examinations) is released.

Download The timetable here

AP SSC 2010 TIMETABLE DOWNLOAD

BITSAT 2010 Maths Syllabus | BITSAT 2010 Syllabus for maths,physics,chemistry

BITSAT Syllabus 2010 for Mathematics

The Birla Institute of Technology and Science (BITS) Pilani is a University established under Section 3 of the UGC Act. Admissions to all the Integrated First Degree programmes of BITS, Pilani, at Pilani campus, Goa campus, and Hyderabad Campus for the academic year 2010-11 will be made on the basis of a Computer based Online Test conducted by BITS, Pilani.

Algebra:

1. Complex numbers, addition, multiplication, conjugation, polar representation, properties of modulus and principal argument, triangle inequality, roots of complex numbers, geometric interpretations.
2. Theory of Quadratic equations, quadratic equations in real and complex number system and their solutions, relation between roots and coefficients, nature of roots, equations reducible to quadratic equations.
3. Logarithms and their properties.
4. Arithmetic, geometric and harmonic progressions, arithmetic, geometric and harmonic means, arithmetico-geometric series, sums of finite arithmetic and geometric progressions, infinite geometric series, sums of squares and cubes of the first n natural numbers.
5. Exponential series.
6. 4. Permutations and combinations, Permutations as an arrangement and combination as selection, simple applications.
   5. Binomial theorem for a positive integral index, properties of binomial coefficients.
   6. Matrices and determinants of order two or three, properties and evaluation of determinants, addition and multiplication of matrices, adjoint and inverse of matrices, Solutions of simultaneous linear equations in two or three variables.
   7. Sets, Relations and Functions, algebra of sets applications, equivalence relations, mappings, one-one, into and onto mappings, composition of mappings.
   8. Mathematical Induction
   9. Linear Inequalities, solution of linear inequalities in one and two variables.
   2. Trigonometry
   
   1. Trigonometric ratios, functions and identities.
   2. Solution of trigonometric equations.
   3. Properties of triangles and solutions of triangles
   4. Inverse trigonometric functions
   5. Heights and distances
   3. Two-dimensional Coordinate Geometry
   
   1. Cartesian coordinates, distance between two points, section formulae, shift of origin.
   2. Straight lines and pair of straight lines: Equation of straight lines in various forms, angle between two lines, distance of a point from a line, lines through the point of intersection of two given lines, equation of the bisector of the angle between two lines, concurrent lines.
   3. Circles and family of circles : Equation of circle in various form, equation of tangent, normal & chords, parametric equations of a circle , intersection of a circle with a straight line or a circle, equation of circle through point of intersection of two circles, conditions for two intersecting circles to be orthogonal.
   4. Conic sections : parabola, ellipse and hyperbola their eccentricity, directrices & foci, parametric forms, equations of tangent & normal, conditions for y=mx+c to be a tangent and point of tangency.
   4. Three dimensional Coordinate Geometry
   
   1. Direction cosines and direction ratios, equation of a straight line in space and skew lines.
   2. Angle between two lines whose direction ratios are given
   3. Equation of a plane, distance of a point from a plane, condition for coplanarity of three lines.
   5. Differential calculus
   
   1. Domain and range of a real valued function, Limits and Continuity of the sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions, Differentiability.
   2. Derivative of different types of functions (polynomial, rational, trigonometric, inverse trigonometric, exponential, logarithmic, implicit functions), derivative of the sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions, chain rule.
   3. Geometric interpretation of derivative, Tangents and Normals.
   4. Increasing and decreasing functions, Maxima and minima of a function.
   5. Rolle's Theorem, Mean Value Theorem and Intermediate Value Theorem.
   6. Integral calculus
   
   1. Integration as the inverse process of differentiation, indefinite integrals of standard functions.
   2. Methods of integration: Integration by substitution, Integration by parts, integration by partial fractions, and integration by trigonometric identities.
   3. Definite integrals and their properties, Fundamental Theorem of Integral Calculus and its applications.
   4. Application of definite integrals to the determination of areas of regions bounded by simple curves.
   7. Ordinary Differential Equations
   
   1. Variables separable method.
   2. Solution of homogeneous differential equations.
   3. Linear first order differential equations
   8. Probability
   
   1. Addition and multiplication rules of probability.
   2. Conditional probability
   3. Independent events
   4. Discrete random variables and distributions
   9. Vectors
   
   1. Addition of vectors, scalar multiplication.
   2. Dot and cross products of two vectors.
   3. Scalar triple products and their geometrical interpretations.
   10. Statistics
   
   1. Measures of dispersion
   2. Measures of skewness and Central Tendency
   11.Linear Programming
   
   1. Formulation of linear Programming
   2. Solution of linear Programming, using graphical method.